What is the basis for the assertion that this story was not always a part of John’s Gospel? I had never heard of that. This assertion seems unlikely to me. I would love to see where it came from.
I never knew there was a bit of mystery surrounding this story either, but if you were to read again you will see I cited the source--which is a Catholic Bible Commentary with an Imprimatur. If you know what that is then you know it was approved by the Church. Also, that was a very small part of my reflection anyway and not really the point, and definitely not elaborated on in any great detail. But if you really want to focus on this assertion and the interesting speculation surrounding this then you can read what I found here from Catholic Answers: https://www.catholic.com/magazine/online-edition/the-adulteress-and-the-gospel
The passage from the referenced commentary claims that this passage was written down in another book in the 4th century. If it wasn’t written in Scripture, why would St Jerome have included it in the vulgate?
It’s not found in any of the major Greek manuscripts before the 6th century. Why does Jerome include into the Latin Vulgate at the present location? No one knows. Some manuscripts of John at the pericope at the end of 21:25 at ending of John’s gospel. It’s also found in Luke manuscripts after 21:38.
Some scholars speculate that the pericope actually fits more of Synoptic conflict narrative than any type of genre form found in the Johannine text.
Regardless, the Church has decided that the text is inspired Scripture.
Thank you for the clarification, Phillip. As I was perusing through some resources, I was I was surprised about this myself. I appreciate you taking a look at this from a scholarly and researched point of view and providing a bit more explanation.
No problem. What is interesting, Catholics under the magisterium, who holds this as inspired text, there’s not much of an issue. However reading on some debate within Protestant theological circles there is some question on what authority does the text hold since it doesn’t appear in the major texts of John. For example it becomes problematic because Jesus forgives the woman, or doesn’t condemn her, without her asking for forgiveness or offering any sort of contrition.
Yep, I was actually thinking about that too; glad you brought that up. It is however, a truly a beautiful story and am glad that the magisterium considers it as it is. Thanks again, Phillip.
Amen
What is the basis for the assertion that this story was not always a part of John’s Gospel? I had never heard of that. This assertion seems unlikely to me. I would love to see where it came from.
I never knew there was a bit of mystery surrounding this story either, but if you were to read again you will see I cited the source--which is a Catholic Bible Commentary with an Imprimatur. If you know what that is then you know it was approved by the Church. Also, that was a very small part of my reflection anyway and not really the point, and definitely not elaborated on in any great detail. But if you really want to focus on this assertion and the interesting speculation surrounding this then you can read what I found here from Catholic Answers: https://www.catholic.com/magazine/online-edition/the-adulteress-and-the-gospel
Thank you for more resources!
Certainly, and also read what Phillip Hadden wrote below as well. It is very helpful.
I just like biblical exegesis and that stood out to me.
The passage from the referenced commentary claims that this passage was written down in another book in the 4th century. If it wasn’t written in Scripture, why would St Jerome have included it in the vulgate?
It’s not found in any of the major Greek manuscripts before the 6th century. Why does Jerome include into the Latin Vulgate at the present location? No one knows. Some manuscripts of John at the pericope at the end of 21:25 at ending of John’s gospel. It’s also found in Luke manuscripts after 21:38.
Some scholars speculate that the pericope actually fits more of Synoptic conflict narrative than any type of genre form found in the Johannine text.
Regardless, the Church has decided that the text is inspired Scripture.
Thank you for the clarification, Phillip. As I was perusing through some resources, I was I was surprised about this myself. I appreciate you taking a look at this from a scholarly and researched point of view and providing a bit more explanation.
No problem. What is interesting, Catholics under the magisterium, who holds this as inspired text, there’s not much of an issue. However reading on some debate within Protestant theological circles there is some question on what authority does the text hold since it doesn’t appear in the major texts of John. For example it becomes problematic because Jesus forgives the woman, or doesn’t condemn her, without her asking for forgiveness or offering any sort of contrition.
Yep, I was actually thinking about that too; glad you brought that up. It is however, a truly a beautiful story and am glad that the magisterium considers it as it is. Thanks again, Phillip.