Actually, Christ alone was able to have the righteousness of the Law by performing it because did not have the human weakness from the law of sin that we all share. He was able to perform it perfectly. We also have the righteousness of the Law when Christ’s Spirit is within us because He can then share it with us. Under grace, we don’t have to perform it (cf. Romans 8:1-4; Colossians 2:20-23).
I'm not sure what you are trying to argue. Simply, the law did not make one righteous, Christ or otherwise. Christ's righteousness comes from His human nature being united to the divine and being confirmed in habitual grace. As far as the law goes, while we are no longer required to perform the ceremonial law, we are still bound to the moral law.
As always your explanations are clear and easy to understand!!!
Thank you so much. A blessed Lent to you!
Actually, Christ alone was able to have the righteousness of the Law by performing it because did not have the human weakness from the law of sin that we all share. He was able to perform it perfectly. We also have the righteousness of the Law when Christ’s Spirit is within us because He can then share it with us. Under grace, we don’t have to perform it (cf. Romans 8:1-4; Colossians 2:20-23).
I'm not sure what you are trying to argue. Simply, the law did not make one righteous, Christ or otherwise. Christ's righteousness comes from His human nature being united to the divine and being confirmed in habitual grace. As far as the law goes, while we are no longer required to perform the ceremonial law, we are still bound to the moral law.